Why we don’t need to make polygamy a crime

A man can have sex with as many women as he likes. But he can’t marry more than one.

by Andrew Coyne on Wednesday, February 18, 2009 4:45pm - 59 Comments

Why we don’t need to make polygamy a crime

Whatever you may have heard, the case of Winston Blackmore and James Oler, the fundamentalist Mormon preachers from Bountiful, B.C. whose polygamy trial begins next week, is not about religious freedom. Nor is it about gay marriage, or child abuse, or any of the other extraneous issues with which partisans of one stripe or another would like to festoon the debate.

It certainly isn’t about whether the two men are guilty of the crime of polygamy under Section 293 of the Criminal Code, which prohibits “any kind of conjugal union with more than one person at the same time whether or not it is by law recognized as a binding form of marriage.” The defence does not contest the charges, but rather intends to argue the law is a violation of their freedom of religion as guaranteed under the Charter of Rights.

They’re free to argue their case as they please, of course, but the argument for removing polygamy from the Criminal Code does not depend on appeals to religious freedom. It would make no more sense to charge an atheist with the crime than a backwoods preacher, if the law were not capable of defence on its own merits, nor would the harm to religious freedom be enough to invalidate the law if it were. We should consider the matter, rather, in light of what the criminal law is for: what sorts of things the state may rightly prohibit, and what it may not, mindful that the burden of proof is always on the state, not merely to prove that a crime has been committed, but that it should be considered a crime at all.

It isn’t the discriminatory impact of Sect. 293 that condemns it, but simply that it is overkill. We don’t need to criminalize polygamy, not because we think it’s right or even acceptable, but because it is not the sort of behaviour properly addressed by the criminal law, and because we have other, less intrusive means of registering society’s abhorrence. And if we don’t need to criminalize a thing, we probably shouldn’t.

Consider first that most of those involved (we’ll deal with the exceptions in a minute) are adults who freely entered into these relationships. The criminal law does not normally concern itself with acts between consenting adults, except where these result in some harm to another. Now consider the kinds of things that are not prohibited between consenting adults. A man may have sex with as many women (or men) as he likes, serially or coincidentally, individually or all at once. He may father children with any or all of them. He can marry one of them, and have sex with the rest. He can live together with all of them and their children, so long as they don’t marry or have sex. All of these things he can do without being charged with a crime. The only thing the law prohibits him from doing is marrying (or living in “conjugal union” with) more than one woman at the same time. (Well, not only that: it also includes anyone who “celebrates, assists or is party to a rite, ceremony, contract or consent that purports to sanction” such a relationship. It’s the 21st century, and we’re prosecuting rites and ceremonies.)

If the harm arising from polygamy were of a kind that required sending a man to prison, it could surely as easily be traced to one of its component acts: the sex, the multiple partners, the living together. Or if there is evidence that some of the wives were forced into marriage, or were underage—neither consenting, that is, nor adults—then prosecute these crimes under the relevant statutes. In neither case is there any need for a separate, additional charge of polygamy.

If we don’t like polygamous marriages, we don’t have to throw people in jail for performing them: we can just refuse to recognize them. Reserve the legal recognition of marriage to monogamous couples, as we do now, and leave consenting adults to work out the rest in private.

Isn’t this still discrimination? Wouldn’t the definition of marriage in monogamous terms be vulnerable to the same constitutional challenges by polygamy advocates that earlier overturned the definition of marriage as the union of one man and one woman? Aren’t we on that slippery slope that opponents of gay marriage warned us about?

Well, no. Yes, it’s discrimination. And yes, polygamists might challenge it in court. That doesn’t mean they’d win. The Charter does not prohibit all discrimination. It prohibits only those forms of discrimination that cannot be justified as “reasonable.” The reason the old heterosexual definition of marriage did not survive scrutiny was that its defenders could not convincingly identify the harm that would result if it were expanded to include homosexuals. But nothing in that implies that a reasonable case could not be made as to the harm—to the equality of women, to the raising of children, to the stability of marriage in general—that would arise from conferring legal status on polygamous marriages, with all of the rights that would accrue thereto.

And if we couldn’t? If we can’t show evidence of harm? If we don’t have a good reason to discriminate, then we probably shouldn’t.

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  • Adrayis

    I got emails saying that comments had been posted and when I came to discuss them, they aren’t here. I’m not sure if my browser just isn’t loading them right, so I figured I’d post them from the emails I got from this site to discuss. I do so love a good discussion. :D

    The first one was at 9:30 (this is all eastern time) this morning by jjg:

    “Polygamy is where a man controls women through coercion whether religious tactics or otherwise.

    Do you think those women in Boutiful can just pick up their kis and leave that situation. Their entire lieves are controlled.”

    The second was at 1 pm by James Short:

    “jjg has it right. If women are brainwashed, cheated and impregnated by a cult leader, is there nothing wrong? to give this situation social sanction or legal license is immoral. The state has a responsibility to protect its women against the polygamist predator. The state recognized this responsibility and outlawed polygamy. The state has generally been ineffectual against brainwashing but it can enforce this law and it should.”

    The last was at 1:07 by Mike T.

    “this is not actually the definition of polygamy”

    Now, I don’t know if jjg was replying to something else, or had written a new comment, like I said, I can’t see it. But these are allegations I’d like to respond to, because they are blatently untrue.

    First of all, the definition, should someone actually be interested in the truth, rather than closed-minded bias, of polygamy is, straight from dictionary.com “polygamy – po⋅lyg⋅a⋅my
       /pəˈlɪgəmi/ [puh-lig-uh-mee] –noun
    1. the practice or condition of having more than one spouse, esp. wife, at one time. Compare bigamy (def. 1), monogamy (def. 1).
    2. Zoology. the habit or system of mating with more than one individual, either simultaneously or successively.”

    I appologize jjg, but I don’t see anything written there about the coersion of women by men through any means. if I’m missing something, please, feel free to cite where I’ve quoted the wrong definition.

    Now, we all know that everyone hates the fundie Mormons who follow polygamy. We all “know” (because we’ve been told by a friend who’s 3rd cousin on their mothers side’s, best friend’s boyfriend’s ex girlfriend said it was true) that the fundie Mormons all force their 10 year old daughters to marry 80 year old men and they beat and sexually abuse every woman they either bear or meet. Oh, yes. We all know this to be fact.

    So… Uh… You want to explain to me why the shelter downtown is full of women and children who were beaten and sexually abused by their husbands and fathers in what they thought was a monogamous relationship?

    Don’t get me wrong here, I’m not a Mormon. Not because I despise them or anything, I just don’t believe what they do. Most of the Mormon’s, fundie or not, that I’ve met have been pleasent enough people. And I’ll be honest with you jjg. So was the man that beat the hell out of me in our monogamous relationship. So, you want to tell me again how polygamy is the root of all evil, and how it’s only used by evil men to abuse and subjugate women? Go right ahead, and I’ll throw hundreds of women at you who were in monogamous relationships and had that and worse given to them. Where did polygamy enter into that, hm? How did polygamy force these fine, upstanding men to hurt these women who don’t know their place?

    As for you, James Short, absolutely, being forced into an unwanted marriage is wrong. Absolutely, being raped is wrong, and absolutely, brainwashing is wrong. I never said I agree with those things. And the polygamist predator? Man, protect your women from the monogamous predator! I guarentee you, the monogamous predator has brainwashed, cheated, abused, impregnated and done worse than the polygamist predator.

    Do you men not understand that there’s nothing wrong with a HAPPY, HEALTHY relationship? And that there’s nothing wrong with having more than one? Note I stress, over and over and bloody-well over again HAPPY AND HEALTHY. Abuse is not healthy, be it in a monogamous or polygamist relationship!

    Or is it that you see this as a threat to your marriage to your wife, and having your mistress on the side?

  • Roger

    The “polygamy” law was never intended to be enforced — it was enacted as a deterrent to Utah Mormons considering settlement in BC in the 1890s. The law was religious discrimination in its purest, most obvious form (although the reference to Mormons was scrubbed from the law in the 1950s by lawmakers who perhaps felt a bit of unease at such blatant bigotry).

    The intent of the BC government must be roughly the same here, since Blackmore and his followers obviously will not give up their practices because of the law. In fact, the law most likely has no deterrent effect on anyone’s behavior, since it’s specifically designed to target the social organization of one, and only one group, without worrying about any other form of multi-person relationships.

    In other words, the intent is to drive this particular community — of Canadian citizens — out of the country. There can be no other purpose to this law and this prosecution. This is a purpose suited for a 1935 Nazi law, 1918 Soviet law, or 2002 Zimbabwe law, but not for 21st century Canada.

  • Francien Verhoeven

    Very interesting piece, Mr.Coyne

    You raise some important questions:

    What is the criminal law for? (and the burden of proof? – What then is the definition of crime?)

    and

    The Charter does not prohibit all discrimination. It prohibits only those forms of discrimination that cannot be justified as “reasonable”.

    So we have the two in relation to: that which is considered reasonable, and that which is considered criminal.

    But let’s back up a bit further: “Civil liberty, the chief justice of the US Surpreme court has written, means the liberty of a citizen, not abstract liberty of an individual in a state of nature. (Ignatieff quotes in one of his books).

    In order to sort out what the meaning of marriage holds within societies, we need to go back with what the meaning of law and goverment is to be all about within societies. A clear distinction must be drawn between that ‘civil’ aspect and the aspect of being an ‘individual in a state of nature”. If we cannot distinquish the differece between the two aspects, all laws and government actions will misunderstood, and indeed, therefore the actions of law and governments will be mishandled to the DISADVANTAGE of ‘ an individual state of nature’ in the end.

    The definition of marriage is born out of the need for forming a bridge between that which is within human nature and that which belongs to civility. The meaning of marriage, then, must have a “reason” for existence. And indeed it does. Marriage is not merely a contract between individuals within a state of nature, but the definition of marriage carries a civilian component within as well; nations have laws which specifically pertain to marriage (civil rights and responsibilities associated with being married, or no longer….and so forth).

    Besides the fact that a recognised bond between people constitutes a marriage, there is a recognised civil component to it. And so, if societies deem this civil component to be of value, to be reasonalbe enough to be formally instituted, then it must serve a purpose for the common good. If it would serve no purpose, the civil definition of marriage might as well not be at all.

    What then is that purpose for the common good? To merely protect or strengthen a union between consenting adults? Or, to protect consenting individuals when they wish to dislodge such union? But what good would such purpose be for societies at large? We have all sorts of laws in place to deal with union break-ups. One could live with other persons, and draw up a contract before entering into such living arrangements.

    No, there must be another good reason why societies deal in a civic manner with the meaning of marriage (besides that of considering marriage as individuals being in a state of nature – or love), and such purpose comes down to the well-being of offspring. It is through the well-being of the offspring that our societal common good is protected. That is where the action of the individual meets the action of the collective (government and laws). Through the civil institution of marriage, the offspring is automatically included, because only out of the union between one man and one woman can the offspring appear. Traditionally, that has been and should be the special union which needs to be strenghtened and protected by dealing with the meaning of marriage in a civil manner besides that of considering marriage merely as an act of love between existing (and consenting) individuals, precisely because love (human state in nature) is so fickle. It is what arises out of marriage (out of that love) that makes the definition of marriage meaningfull for civil societies; Collectively we, as societies, protecting our common good against the odds of fickleness found in love.

    When societies define marriage as being a union between one man and one woman, then by means of civil discourse, that particular union can be catered to specifically, and thereby protecting the well-being of offspring. Yes, a lot of common good found within offspring has been watered down over the years (decades, etc) besides that of unraveling the definition of marriage. But when societies open up the meaning of marriage outside of that union between one man and one woman, in other words, when the civil meaning of marriage means not much anylonger within civil terms (what is left to be catered to afterall) then the well-being of offspring is simultaneously thrown overboard. And where then is the common good component apparent within a meaningless definition of marriage?

    Yes, yes, I know, that there are exceptions to the rules. But when we start believing (really believing) that exceptions can start making the rules, then we might as well not consider government or laws in any shape or form. Government and laws are there for the common good. Only out of the common good can the individual state of nature be enhanced by tapping the good out of it. If there is no common good, the individual state of nature will be losing out likewise, and accordingly.

    Precisely because in Canada we have decided (through a very strange process) to water down the definition of marriage. Since SSM, no longer does the meaning of marriage hold anything besides the well-being of two consenting adults (polygamy actions in court may alter that once again). No longer can civil activity be catered to discriminantly. But the well-being of our offspring needs to be considered discriminantly because by doing so, in a civil manner, we manage to protect the common good.

    In my mind, the decision to include SSM into the definition of marriage is directly related to how the polygamy case must be dealt with. Because you, or others, may believe that marriage should be merely between two individuals, in order to make the union reasonable for civil purposes, but that does not mean that the definition of “reasonable” has been sufficiently defined. Reasonable in relation to what? In relation to what you, or others, think is reasonable? Or what certain judges happen to think is reasonable? No, like you so clearly state; the burden of proof should always be on the state. And the state must prove reason in accordance with the common good, always. But I have a hard time reconciling what the state offers as burden of proof when throwing out the meaning of marriage between one man and one woman. Because what then is there left to be proven?

    “The Charter does not prohibit all discrimination. It prohibits only those forms of discrimination that cannot be justified as “reasonable”.

  • Francien Verhoeven

    But like Andrew states; we already have laws in place which deal with the criminal aspect of it all: the limit on age consent; laws against coersion and so forth. What remains here is that the aspect of a polygamous marriage stands accused of being criminal. That is the core of the question to be answered. Why should it be considered criminal at all? That is what Andrew is asking, and I’m asking the same question.

    But in order to answer this question, we need to understand the meaning of marriage within civil discourse.

  • Tony

    (Winston Blackmore)Sick bastard,nuff said…

  • Tony

    (Winston Blackmore)Sick ba*tard,nuff said.

  • Courtney

    honestly I think any leader associated with the fundamentalist church at this time should be taken into custody and held there until it is proven that they did not marry an underage girl or force anyone into marriage. I dont care if you are a specific religious group or if you are living in a polygamist relationship, what I care about is this man is a leader of a radical group of people who are brainwashing, abusing and manipulating multitudes of people. Am I saying he is a rapist? no Am I saying that he forced anyone into marriage? no however I do believe that this religious group needs government intervention at this time for the safety of women and children and I think the means of doing that is by taking away the powerful men in the community and figuring out what is really going on…

  • Belinda P

    Andrew Coyne writes: "We can just refuse to recognize it." (polygamy) What he needs to understand is that it is provincial family law courts that "recognize" multiple conjugal unions, not federal courts. BC intends to introduce new family law legislation in January that will allow women to have multiple spouses. Married women will be allowed to claim same time common law spouses for sure under this legislation. Men will not be able to if the BC AG has his way and criminalizes polygyny only (allowing women and same sex spouses to have multiply recognized conjugal unions.) This is why the Federal AG wishes to ensure that polygyny offences MUST include a ceremony. ( actually that is Bigamy..but maybe he doesn't know that)

  • jack g.

    The BC AG claims polygamy is only a male transgression. Common law relationships are a conjugal union just as is a marriage. The question is, in provincial common law relationships or cohabitation "as spouses", does the countdown for "recognized" cohabitation towards a recognized "state of marriage or conjugal union" start when both persons are "capable in law" of being married (i.e single) or when married and not divorced persons start to simply cohabitate?

  • jack g.

    In other words, do married people need to get divorced before family law courts start to "recognize" them as spouses under Family Property Acts, Marriage property Acts or Family Relationship Acts. ( does the cohabitation time countdown start when eligable to marry?)
    Guptill v. Wilfred, 2009 NSSC 44 (CanLII) is an example of a provincial Marital Property Act justice authority that refused to recognize multiple spouses in 2009 because they would involve himself "authorizing" multiple conjugal unions.

  • Cassie V

    Maybe he didn't want to potentially spend 5 years in prison and face disbarrment and lawsuits?
    Winik v. Saskatchewan (Public Trustee), 1999 CanLII 12517 (SK Q.B.)
    is an example of a Saskatchewan Queens Bench justice "authorizing a unilateral consent" for multiple spousal status. ( a married women to be the spouse of a person who has a spouse". This is recognition.
    Thurlow v. Shedden, 2009 SKQB 35 (CanLII) is a case where another Saskatchewan Queens Bench Justice declared recognition of a married womens claim to have the right to force a non consenting single man to become her spouse or "the spouse of a person who has a spouse" (s.51 of the Saskatchewan Family Property Act. In short, the justices in Saskatchewan have not only "recognized polygamy, they have authorized a consent to it! S.293 states it is illegal to sanction, recognize, provide consent for or assist with this type of relationship. So, will anyone charge the Saskatchewan justices who did this? (or the BC justices who will do this when their new family law legislation is passed) http://www.thecourt.ca/2007/08/24/a-polygamy-prim…

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